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Photo Forum / Film Photography / Darkroom / March 2004

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Dilution Question

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missblueamerican - 19 Feb 2004 06:10 GMT
Hi--What does it mean for something to be diluted 1:50? In terms of
ounces and mililiters? What do the "parts" mean. In other words, of
you say one part developer, 3 parts water, what does that mean in
terms of ounces and mililiters?

K
Richard Knoppow - 19 Feb 2004 06:58 GMT
> Hi--What does it mean for something to be diluted 1:50? In terms of
> ounces and mililiters? What do the "parts" mean. In other words, of
> you say one part developer, 3 parts water, what does that mean in
> terms of ounces and mililiters?
>
> K

 First, 1:50 in _photography_ means one part of something
in 50 parts of something else for a total of 51 parts. This
is Kodak practice, in general chemistry 1:50 would mean one
part of something in a volume totaling 50 parts.
 By _parts_ is meant equal measures, whatever they are.
Parts can be ounces or milliliters, or grams or tons but
each part is one unit. So saying to dilute a developer 1
part stock to 2 parts water would mean, for instance, using
one pint of stock solution to two pints water (totalling 3
pints).
 Of course dilution implys liquid measure. "Parts"
sometimes is used for solid measure but is a sloppy way of
stating it.

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---
Richard Knoppow
Los Angeles, CA, USA
dickburk@ix.netcom.com

Dan Quinn - 19 Feb 2004 23:43 GMT
> ... in general chemistry 1:50 would mean one part of something
> in a volume totaling 50 parts.

 And I suppose 1:1 "would mean one part of something in a volumn
totaling" one part. Is that correct?                          Dan
Gregory W Blank - 19 Feb 2004 23:47 GMT
> > ... in general chemistry 1:50 would mean one part of something
> > in a volume totaling 50 parts.
>
>   And I suppose 1:1 "would mean one part of something in a volumn
> totaling" one part. Is that correct?                          Dan

Well in the same container it is one part, of course its a bigger part
than it was before you added the two smaller parts together to make one.
;-)
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LF website http://members.bellatlantic.net/~gblank

k - 20 Feb 2004 00:45 GMT
> > ... in general chemistry 1:50 would mean one part of something
> > in a volume totaling 50 parts.
>
>   And I suppose 1:1 "would mean one part of something in a volumn
> totaling" one part. Is that correct?                          Dan

actually, it is correct :-)

k
David Nebenzahl - 20 Feb 2004 04:12 GMT
On 2/19/2004 3:43 PM Dan Quinn spake thus:

>> ... in general chemistry 1:50 would mean one part of something
>> in a volume totaling 50 parts.
>
>   And I suppose 1:1 "would mean one part of something in a volumn
> totaling" one part. Is that correct?                          Dan

I guess I have to 'fess up and eat crow for messing up and posting bad
information. Richard's correct, of course: 1:1, in common photographic usage
(which is WRONG, but never mind that), means one part X to one part water. In
a just world, of course, this would be notated as "1+1", which is what it
really means.

And sorry to the O.P. (that's you, "missblueamerican") to adding to the
confusion. Do you know now how to mix whatever it is you want to mix?

Signature

It's fun to demonize the neo-cons and rejoice in their discomfiture, but
don't make the mistake of thinking US foreign policy was set by Norman
Podhoretz or William Kristol. They're the clowns capering about in front of
the donkey and the elephant. The donkey says the UN should clean up after
them, and the elephant now says the donkey may have a point. Somebody has
come out with a dustpan and broom.

- Alexander Cockburn, _CounterPunch_
(http://www.counterpunch.org), 9/17/03

Dennis O'Connor - 20 Feb 2004 13:09 GMT
Kodak chemists, even way back then, understood scientific notation...They
knew that mixing chemical A to water B in a 1:50 ratio in the laboratory,
means 1 part A plus 49 parts B for a total of 50 parts...

---this is literally the first thing taught to chemistry lab 101 students,
meaning they have to calculate how much A and how much B in order to get a
final solution < say 2.5 : 36.4 >    ---

They also knew that the average photographer had zero chemistry lab
training..
So, they adjusted either their stock chemicals, or the developing time, so
that that Joe Photographer could stand in his kitchen and simply measure 1
ounce of A and 50 ounces of B, slop em together (totals 1:51 btw) and get
consistent results...

On the issue of 1:1 versus 1+1, examples:
..
1 + 1 means 1 ounce of A and 1 ounce of B, for a total of 2 ounces

1:1 means 0.5 ounce of A and 0.5 ounce of B, for a total of 1 ounce...

The solution strength is the same, the total volume is different...
denny

"Dan Quinn" <dan.c.quinn@att.net> wrote in message >   And I suppose 1:1
"would mean one part of something in a volumn
> totaling" one part. Is that correct?                          Dan
David Nebenzahl - 20 Feb 2004 17:45 GMT
On 2/20/2004 5:09 AM Dennis O'Connor spake thus:

> On the issue of 1:1 versus 1+1, examples:
> ..
[quoted text clipped - 3 lines]
>
> The solution strength is the same, the total volume is different...

Um, I think you're needlessly confusing the issue with these examples. Both
are exactly the same *dilution* (1+1), just different total amounts. I don't
think the nomenclature "1:1" means what you said it does (0.5 + 0.5).

According to photographic usage, "1:1" is essentially meaningless, as it means
1 part concentrate to 1 part *total solution*, which is the same as 1+0.

I still say that manufacturers should be explicit about this and use the
notation "1+n", as Ilford does, for example, to indicate mixing 1 part
concentrate to n parts water. But it's a lost cause.

Signature

It's fun to demonize the neo-cons and rejoice in their discomfiture, but
don't make the mistake of thinking US foreign policy was set by Norman
Podhoretz or William Kristol. They're the clowns capering about in front of
the donkey and the elephant. The donkey says the UN should clean up after
them, and the elephant now says the donkey may have a point. Somebody has
come out with a dustpan and broom.

- Alexander Cockburn, _CounterPunch_
(http://www.counterpunch.org), 9/17/03

Dan Quinn - 24 Feb 2004 22:55 GMT
> > ... in general chemistry 1:50 would mean one part of something
> > in a volume totaling 50 parts.
>
>   And I suppose 1:1 "would mean one part of something in a volumn
> totaling" one part. Is that correct?                          Dan

 I quick checked three general texts and a couple of texts
dealing with analytical chemistry. I found no reference to ratios
or dilution.
 Chemistry is a very exacting and methodically persued science.
Solutions are sometimes percentage but more often normal, or
molar. Although those are discussed there is no mention of
ratio or dilution. Check your lab manual.                       Dan
Gary Banuk - 24 Feb 2004 23:14 GMT
1:1 means 1 part of one solution to one part of another solution. So
in effect you have a 50:50 solution. 1:50 would mean 1 part of a
solution to 50 parts of another solution for a total of 51 parts.

>> > ... in general chemistry 1:50 would mean one part of something
>> > in a volume totaling 50 parts.
[quoted text clipped - 9 lines]
>molar. Although those are discussed there is no mention of
>ratio or dilution. Check your lab manual.                       Dan
David Nebenzahl - 19 Feb 2004 06:59 GMT
On 2/18/2004 10:10 PM missblueamerican spake thus:

> Hi--What does it mean for something to be diluted 1:50? In terms of
> ounces and mililiters? What do the "parts" mean. In other words, of
> you say one part developer, 3 parts water, what does that mean in
> terms of ounces and mililiters?

Like they used to say, parts is parts.

A "part" can be any measure. If you're using ounces, say, then 1:50 might mean
1 ounce (of concentrate) to 50 ounces *of total solution*. (That's where some
of the confusion enters, by the way: it *doesn't* mean 1 part concentrate to
50 parts water, for instance.) Or to double the total amount, 2 oz.
concentrate to 100 oz. total solution, and so on.

Works the same way with milliliters, gallons or shot glasses.

Signature

It's fun to demonize the neo-cons and rejoice in their discomfiture, but
don't make the mistake of thinking US foreign policy was set by Norman
Podhoretz or William Kristol. They're the clowns capering about in front of
the donkey and the elephant. The donkey says the UN should clean up after
them, and the elephant now says the donkey may have a point. Somebody has
come out with a dustpan and broom.

- Alexander Cockburn, _CounterPunch_
(http://www.counterpunch.org), 9/17/03

Gregory W Blank - 19 Feb 2004 10:34 GMT
> Hi--What does it mean for something to be diluted 1:50? In terms of
> ounces and mililiters? What do the "parts" mean. In other words, of
> you say one part developer, 3 parts water, what does that mean in
> terms of ounces and mililiters?
>
> K

It does not mean anything its either or. You could use 1-plus -49
or 1+50 at that ratio with little change. I would go with 1+49=50

You can use 1 oz +49oz's

or you can use the ratio exactly the same in:  ( ml ) as a smaller
or larger increment.  

The end result is I alway mix the ratio to get the bigger number as a sum of
the two parts that may be incorrect, but it works for me.
Signature

LF website http://members.bellatlantic.net/~gblank

Severi Salminen - 19 Feb 2004 12:52 GMT
 > It does not mean anything its either or. You could use 1-plus -49
> or 1+50 at that ratio with little change. I would go with 1+49=50

That (1+49) is totally incorrect allthough there is little difference in
this example. 1+1 or 1:1 in photography means 1 part something and 1
part something else (thus totaling 2 parts). It does _not_ mean 1 part
of something in volume totaling 1 part.

1+50 with Rodinal means 1 part of Rodinal and 50 parts of water
resulting 51 parts of working solution. The same applies to most other
photographic chemicals. If you don't apply it correctly, you'll have
troubles when trying to dilute 1:1, for example.

IMHO for clarity it should allways be written A+B, not A:B.

Severi
Gregory W Blank - 19 Feb 2004 13:32 GMT
>   > It does not mean anything its either or. You could use 1-plus -49
> > or 1+50 at that ratio with little change. I would go with 1+49=50
[quoted text clipped - 12 lines]
>
> Severi

Correct you are, at dilutions lower than 1+30 that is the way I do it,
at 1+50/ it matters very little if you use 1plus 50 or 1 plus 49.... consistancy is what matters. Its easier
to make an even increment, hence my rather differing method.

At 1:1 there is little doubt, 1 part and 1 part. at 1: 7 I add 1part and 7 to make
eight.  

At (1:2: 100 )- I add .....1part plus two parts plus water for a total volume of 100.
which in my book is Less confusing and is consistant every time.

My end result I always use even increments....as the graduates are designed to measure them.
Signature

LF website http://members.bellatlantic.net/~gblank

Jorge Omar - 19 Feb 2004 12:54 GMT
There is always a big confusion over this matter...

Kodak uses 1:50 while Ilford uses 1+50. Both means the same, but I feel
Ilford's way is more clear.

At 1+50, it really will not matter very much, but at 1+2 it will make a
significant difference.

So read it as one part of something (cc, ounce, whatever) added to many
parts of (usually) water.

As one example, to mix 300cc of dev at 1+2:

Divide 300 by 3 (1+2=3), so each part is 100cc.

The result is 100cc dev, 200cc water.

Jorge

> Hi--What does it mean for something to be diluted 1:50? In terms of
> ounces and mililiters? What do the "parts" mean. In other words, of
> you say one part developer, 3 parts water, what does that mean in
> terms of ounces and mililiters?
>
> K
Severi Salminen - 19 Feb 2004 13:02 GMT
> As one example, to mix 300cc of dev at 1+2:
>
> Divide 300 by 3 (1+2=3), so each part is 100cc.
>
> The result is 100cc dev, 200cc water.

And a general case:

To mix V amount of dev at A+B:

Developer (A) needed = V*A/(A+B)
Water (B) needed = V*B/(A+B)

In the example above A = 1, B = 2 and V = 300cc.

Severi "maths nerd" S.
ericm1600@yahoo.com - 19 Feb 2004 23:49 GMT
>At 1+50, it really will not matter very much, but at 1+2 it will make a
>significant difference.

As long as you are consistent with yourself, that's all that really matters.
I'm a fan of Xtol 1:3.  But if you want to be precise, I actually use Xtol
1:2.82.  (I fill 250 ml bottles with Xtol and then dilute with water to make
1 L working solutions.  But, even though they're 250 ml bottles, they
actually hold 262 ml if you fill them completely so there's no air when you
put on the cap.)  But it doesn't really matter just as long as your process
is repeatable and you're happy with the results.

--
Eric
http://canid.com/
Mike King - 19 Feb 2004 16:05 GMT
one part developer and 3 parts water means one part developer and 3 parts
water.  If you need 16 ounces of solution for your tank it's 4 oz stock and
12 oz water If you need 100 liters it's 25 liters stock and 75 liters water.

--
darkroommike

----------
> Hi--What does it mean for something to be diluted 1:50? In terms of
> ounces and mililiters? What do the "parts" mean. In other words, of
> you say one part developer, 3 parts water, what does that mean in
> terms of ounces and mililiters?
>
> K
Michael Scarpitti - 21 Feb 2004 00:02 GMT
> Hi--What does it mean for something to be diluted 1:50? In terms of
> ounces and mililiters? What do the "parts" mean. In other words, of
> you say one part developer, 3 parts water, what does that mean in
> terms of ounces and mililiters?
>
> K

In photography, 1:50 means 1/51, in other words, a total of 51 parts,
of which 1 part is the developer.

The reason it is done this way is to make mixing easier: Just divide
the total volume you need by the sums of dilution ratio components,
and you have your volumes!

So, if your dilution is 1+14, divide by 15!

600ml/15 = 40 ml
missblueamerican - 12 Mar 2004 21:09 GMT
So, if I want to dilute Rodianl 1:50 in a 32 oz tank, would that mean
that I would want 4oz rodinal to 28 oz of water? would that be
correct?

thanks
K
d23 - 12 Mar 2004 23:44 GMT
No.  32 / 50 = .64     so the two- thirds oz mark on your graduate would be
the closest.

This is one reason most use the metric system in the darkroom. Your tank
holds a little more than a liter, but if you measure with water you'll
almost certainly find that 1 liter will cover your film with room to spare.
That makes it easy--   1000 / 50 = 20 cc (you will need a metric graduate).
Charles   Portland OR
GP - 14 Mar 2004 00:05 GMT
> No.  32 / 50 = .64     so the two- thirds oz mark on your graduate would be
> the closest.
[quoted text clipped - 3 lines]
> almost certainly find that 1 liter will cover your film with room to spare.
> That makes it easy--   1000 / 50 = 20 cc (you will need a metric graduate).

Not that it really maters, but if the the aim is 32oz, with a dilution of
1:50 you would need an amount of rodinal equal to:

Rodinal = 32 / ( 50 + 1)

For 1000ml it would be:

Rodinal = 1000 / (50 + 1)

Guillermo
jjs - 13 Mar 2004 03:21 GMT
> So, if I want to dilute Rodianl 1:50 in a 32 oz tank, would that mean
> that I would want 4oz rodinal to 28 oz of water? would that be
> correct?

No. :) You missed a good thread on this a bit earlier. What it means is 1
part Rodinal then add 50 parts water to make 51 ounces of developer.
Unless Agfa follows their own convention. In any event, believe me that
1:50 or 1:51 ain't going to make a difference you will notice.

What gets tricky is properly measuring small amounts of Rodinal. Use a
very good, small graduate or an eyedropper type of measure. Pour water
into the graduate to flush out all the Rodinal. It's all much easier if
you use the metric scale with the 32 oz target. Make 1000cc and be happy.
Bruce - 14 Mar 2004 05:08 GMT
In article <37e9b963.0403121309.54b8b167@posting.google.com>,
littlebabynothing1@yahoo.com (missblueamerican) wrote:

> So, if I want to dilute Rodianl 1:50 in a 32 oz tank, would that mean
> that I would want 4oz rodinal to 28 oz of water? would that be
> correct?

No. But to make it real simple:
To 50 Oz water add 1 Oz Rodinal.  Draw off 32 Oz and throw the rest away.

Or reserve the rest, or make a larger total (working solution) so you don't
throw away so much.  The stuff keeps a really long time as a working solution
if sealed properly.  If you use 4oz Rodi and 28 Oz water you have a working
solution with a ratio of 1:7.....  Not what you want.
_________________
Ready, Fire, AIM.
Bruce
Brooklyn, N.Y.
Michael Scarpitti - 13 Mar 2004 23:49 GMT
> So, if I want to dilute Rodianl 1:50 in a 32 oz tank, would that mean
> that I would want 4oz rodinal to 28 oz of water? would that be
> correct?
>
> thanks
> K

No, and don't use ounce measures, use metric.

Start with 1 litre (1000cc) as your target.

Divide that by 51: 1000/51=19.60784313725490196078431372549

Or: 20 to make it easy.

Place 20cc of Rodinal in a graduate, then fill with water to 1000cc.
jjs - 14 Mar 2004 00:01 GMT
> > So, if I want to dilute Rodianl 1:50 in a 32 oz tank, would that mean
> > that I would want 4oz rodinal to 28 oz of water? would that be
[quoted text clipped - 12 lines]
>
> Place 20cc of Rodinal in a graduate, then fill with water to 1000cc.

1:50 would be 1020cc, not that it would make a lot of difference in this
particular dilution.
BertS - 14 Mar 2004 17:26 GMT
>>So, if I want to dilute Rodianl 1:50 in a 32 oz tank, would that mean
>>that I would want 4oz rodinal to 28 oz of water? would that be
[quoted text clipped - 12 lines]
>
> Place 20cc of Rodinal in a graduate, then fill with water to 1000cc.

Or, so we don't have to measure down to the molecule, 20 cc Rodinal added to
1000 cc of water.
Michael Scarpitti - 15 Mar 2004 00:25 GMT
> Or, so we don't have to measure down to the molecule, 20 cc Rodinal added to
> 1000 cc of water.

No, that's wrong! 20cc of Rodinal + 980 cc of water = total 1000cc.

1000 / 51 = 19.60784313725490196078431372549

Round 19.60784313725490196078431372549 up to '20'. Add 20cc Rodinal to
the graduate, than add water to make up 1000cc.
 
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